I was surprised to see grammar question #4:
What properties have verbs?
Consider the German "Was haben Sie zu Essen?" In English, its word-for-word translation is "What have you to eat?" which sounds wrong, today, but once was right. That kind of "Germanic" phrasing was common for most of English's history, I think. I remember seeing it in Shakespeare [circa 1600], and Gulliver's Travels [1700s] and Moby Dick  as well. Even Lincoln, in 1862, wrote to General McClellan, "Have you any more perfect knowledge of this?"
Experts say that the extra "Do" comes from Celtic:
In Our Magnificent Bastard Tongue: The Untold History of English, John McWhorter [....] first demonstrates how Anglo-Saxon, brought to England in the Fifth Century A.D. by the Angles, Saxons and Jutes, and which we tend to call Old English, morphed into Middle English over half a millennium or so. In the process, its Germanic grammatical constructions were nearly all replaced by a grammar that is seen to be Celtic, resembling Welsh and Cornish, including in particular our tendency to use "do" as a "helper verb": "Do you want to go?" or "I didn't take it!" have replaced "Want you to go?" and "I took it not!". The former are Celtic constructions, the latter, Old English but with modern spelling. [From "Three Steps to English" by Polymath07]
By the way, one reason the 1611 King James Bible seems so poetic may be that it doesn't follow, at all, the way we use this "do-helper" today:
The Gospel of John, Chapter 6 [KJV]
26 .....[Y]e did eat of the loaves, and were filled.
27 Labour not for the meat which perisheth.....
"You all ate the loaves and were filled. / Do not labor for the meat which perishes..."